- Carbon stock in India’s forests
- Forest Types and Biodiversity
- Forest Fire monitoring
- Coral Cover
- Mangrove cover
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: c)
The report provides information on forest cover, tree cover, mangrove
cover, growing stock inside and outside the forest areas, carbon stock in
India’s forests, Forest Types and Biodiversity, Forest Fire monitoring and
forest cover in different slopes & altitudes. Special thematic information
on forest cover such as hill, tribal districts, and north eastern region has
also been given separately in the report.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Turtles.
- A first-of-its-kind rehabilitation centre for freshwater turtles will be setup in Odisha, which will act as home to sick and severely injured turtles that are being rescued from smugglers.
- Turtles play a significant role in the river by controlling fish population and controlling aquatic plants and weeds.
- Turtles have come under serious threat primarily for food and pet trade.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: c)
A first-of-its-kind rehabilitation centre for freshwater turtles will
be inaugurated in Bihar’s Bhagalpur forest division in January 2020.
Forest department officials said the need to build such a centre was
felt after several turtles were found severely wounded and sick when rescued
from smuggles by rescue teams.
Eastern Bihar has been an ideal breeding ground for turtles.
“In Bhagalpur, the flow of water in the Ganga is ample. Also, there are
many sandbanks in the middle of the river, which are ideal breeding ground for
turtles,”
According to environmentalists, the turtles play a significant role in
the river by scavenging dead organic materials and diseased fish, controlling
fish population as predators and controlling aquatic plants and weeds. They are
also described as indicators of healthy aquatic ecosystems.
However, these species are now under severe threats due to habitat
fragmentation and loss through dams and barrages, pollution, illegal poaching,
accidental drowning through fishing nets and threats to their nesting habitats,
a report jointly prepared by the National Mission for Clean Ganga and Wildlife
Institute of India has said.
The turtles have come under serious threat primarily for two reasons —
food and the flourishing pet trade.
“Turtles are being frequently targeted for meat due to the prevailing
belief that it gives an energy boost and keeps various diseases away. Usually,
soft-shell turtles are victims of this belief,”
According to a recent study conducted by Traffic India, around 11,000
turtles are being smuggled in India every year. “In the past 10 years, as many
as 110,000 turtles have been traded,”
3. Consider the following statements regarding Complex Volcano.
- Complex Volcano consists of a complex of two or more vents, or a volcano that has an associated volcanic dome, either in its crater or on its flanks.
- It does not rise from the ground as a distinct, singular dome but consists of multiple stratovolcanoes.
- Recently in the Philippines, a volcano called Taal erupted which is classified as a complex volcano.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
In the Philippines, a volcano called Taal on the island of Luzon, 50 km
from Manila, erupted on Sunday (January 12), spewing lava on the ground, and
ash and smoke into the sky.
Taal is classified as a “complex” volcano by the Philippine Institute
of Volcanology and Seismology (PHIVOLCS). A complex volcano, also called a
compound volcano, is defined as one that consists of a complex of two or more
vents, or a volcano that has an associated volcanic dome, either in its crater
or on its flanks. Examples include Vesuvius, besides Taal.
The Taal volcano does not rise from the ground as a distinct, singular
dome but consists of multiple stratovolcanoes (volcanoes susceptible to
explosive eruptions), conical hills and craters of all shapes and sizes.
4. Consider the following statements regarding Urban local bodies.
- 74th Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 identifies 22 local level functions to be devolved to municipalities, including planning for economic and social development, regulation of land, construction of buildings, urban planning and public health.
- Since the enactment of 74th Constitution Amendment Act, elections to urban local bodies is held once in every five years in all states in India.
- As per the amended Municipal Corporation Act of 1888, Mayors are directly elected by the people in all states.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: a)
In some States, elections to urban local bodies have not been held for
years, defeating the lofty goal of decentralised governance. Tamil Nadu is a
prominent example. The idea of giving more authority to the third tier of
governance has suffered serious stunting, in spite of the 74th Constitution
Amendment Act of 1992 identifying 18 local level functions to be devolved,
including planning for economic and social development, regulation of land,
construction of buildings, urban planning and public health. The average of
subjects devolved in all these years is nine, and does not include the major
municipal services which continue to be run by parastatal authorities that
answer to State governments. Newer devices used to bypass local bodies and
priorities are styled as special schemes, such as urban renewal and smart
cities, directly supervised by the Central government and partnered by State
governments.
In seven states Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha,
Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand; Mayors are directly elected by the people.
5. Consider the following statements regarding Stockholm
International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI).
- SIPRI is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control and disarmament.
- The Institute cooperates closely with several intergovernmental organizations like the United Nations and the European Union.
- Trends in International Arms Transfers 2018 Report was released bhttps://prajapatpk.blogspot.com/y SIPRI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
SIPRI is an independent international institute dedicated to research
into conflict, armaments, arms control and disarmament. Established in 1966,
SIPRI provides data, analysis and recommendations, based on open sources, to
policymakers, researchers, media and the interested public. Based in Stockholm,
SIPRI is regularly ranked among the most respected think tanks worldwide.
SIPRI was established on the basis of a decision by the Swedish
Parliament and receives a substantial part of its funding in the form of an
annual grant from the Swedish Government.
Located in Stockholm, Sweden, SIPRI offers a unique platform for
researchers from different countries to work in close cooperation.
SIPRI maintains contacts with other research centres and individual researchers
throughout the world. The Institute also cooperates closely with several
intergovernmental organizations, notably the United Nations and the European
Union, and regularly receives parliamentary, scientific and government
delegations as well as visiting researchers.
1. Consider the following statements regarding JUS COGENS.
JUS COGENS means the principles which form the norms of international
law that cannot be set aside.
These norms cannot be offset by a separate treaty between parties
intending to do so.
The jus cogens rules have been sanctioned by the Vienna Conventions on
the Law of Treaties of 1969.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
JUS COGENS or ius cogens, meaning “compelling law” in Latin, are rules
in international law that are peremptory or authoritative, and from which
states cannot deviate. These norms cannot be offset by a separate treaty
between parties intending to do so, since they hold fundamental values. Today,
most states and international organisations accept the principle of jus cogens,
which dates back to Roman times.
The jus cogens rules have been sanctioned by the Vienna Conventions on
the Law of Treaties of 1969 and 1986. According to both Conventions, a treaty
is void if it breaches jus cogens rules.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Raisina Dialogue.
Raisina Dialogue is biennial geo-political event, organised by the
Ministry of External Affairs and Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral
discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government
officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and
academics.
Recently, Fifth edition of the Raisina Dialogue was held in New Delhi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2, 3
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2
Solution: a)
Fifth edition of the Raisina
Dialogue was held in New Delhi. The Raisina Dialogue was started in 2016.
The Raisina Dialogue is a multilateral conference committed to
addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. Every year,
global leaders in policy, business, media and civil society are hosted in New
Delhi to discuss cooperation on a wide range of pertinent international policy
matters.
The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral
discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government
officials, as well as major private sector executives, members of the media and
academics.
The conference is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation in
collaboration with the Government of India, Ministry of External Affairs.
3. Which of the following are the critical components of Ujwal
DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) scheme.
Reduction in the aggregate technical and commercial (AT&C) losses.
Timely reduction of tariffs.
Elimination of the gap between average per unit of cost and revenue
realised.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Almost five years after the launch of the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana
(UDAY), there are indications that the power sector is once again in trouble.
Not only have losses of state-owned distribution companies (discoms) risen, but
their dues for power purchases have also surged.
The UDAY scheme, which involved state governments taking over the debt
of discoms, had three critical components: A reduction in the aggregate
technical and commercial (AT&C) losses, timely revision of tariffs, and
elimination of the gap between average per unit of cost and revenue realised.
While progress has been made on some of these fronts, it hasn’t been in
line with the targets laid out under UDAY. AT&C losses have declined in
some states, but not to the extent envisaged. Under UDAY, discoms were to bring
down AT&C losses to 15 per cent by FY19. Similarly, while some states have
raised power tariffs, the hikes have not been sufficient as political
considerations prevailed over commercial decisions. As a result, the gap between
the average cost per unit of power and the revenue realised has not declined in
the manner envisaged, forcing discoms to reduce their power purchases and delay
payments to power producers. This in turn has impaired the ability of power
generating companies to service their debt, causing stress to the banking
sector.
4. Women, Business and the Law 2020 report is published by
a) International Monetary Fund
(IMF)
b) International Women's Forum
c) World Bank
d) World Economic Forum
Solution: c)
According to the World Bank’s Women, Business and the Law 2020 report,
women still have just three-fourths the legal rights of men.
5.‘Survival International’ sometimes in news is a movement that
advocates the rights of
a) Refugees
b) Leprosy patients
c) Tribal people
d) Trafficked human beings
Solution: c)
About SI: “We are Survival, the global movement for tribal peoples’
rights. We’re the only organization that champions tribal peoples around the
world. We help them defend their lives, protect their lands and determine their
own futures.”
1. Consider the following statements regarding Coronavirus.
Coronaviruses (CoV) are a large family of viruses that cause illnesses
ranging from the common cold to more severe diseases such as the Middle East
Respiratory Syndrome and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome.
A novel coronavirus (nCoV) is a new strain that has not been previously
identified in humans.
In 2019 Maximum cases of novel coronavirus were reported in Japan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
Coronaviruses (CoV) are a large family of viruses that cause illness
ranging from the common cold to more severe diseases such as Middle East
Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-CoV) and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
(SARS-CoV). A novel coronavirus (nCoV) is a new strain that has not been
previously identified in humans. Some transmit easily from person to person,
while others do not.
According to WHO Worldwide, there have been a total of 222 officially
reported, confirmed cases of 2019-nCoV — 218 in China, two in Thailand, one in
Japan and one in the Republic of Korea — as on January 20.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Convention for the
Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict.
It is the first international treaty focussed exclusively on the
protection of cultural heritage during war and armed conflict.
It covers only immovable property of great importance to the cultural
heritage of every people, such as monuments of architecture.
United States, Iran and India are signatories to the Convention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Following the unparalleled destruction of cultural heritage in World
War II, the nations of the world adopted at The Hague in 1954, The Convention
for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict, the
first international treaty focussed exclusively on the protection of cultural
heritage during war and armed conflict.
The Convention defined cultural property as “movable or immovable
property of great importance to the cultural heritage of every people, such as
monuments of architecture, art or history, whether religious or secular;
archaeological sites….”, etc. The signatories, referred to in the Convention as
“the High Contracting Parties”, committed themselves to protecting,
safeguarding, and having respect for cultural property.
There are currently 133 signatories to Convention, including countries
that have acceded to and ratified the treaty. Both the United States and Iran
(as well as India) signed the Convention on May 14, 1954, and it entered into
force on August 7, 1956.
3. The International Criminal Court has jurisdiction over
Genocide
Crimes against humanity
War crimes
Crime of aggression
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
The Rome Statute of 1998, the founding treaty of the International
Criminal Court, describes as a “war crime” any intentional attack against a
historical monument, or a building dedicated to religion, education, art, or
science. The International Criminal Court started functioning in 2002 with
jurisdiction over four main crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war
crimes, and the crime of aggression.
4. Consider the following statements.
Rome Statute describes war crimes as “intentionally directing attacks
against civilian objects, that is, objects which are not military objectives”.
India has neither signed nor ratified the Rome Statute of the
International Criminal Court.
After World War II, there are no instances of destruction of cultural
property of great importance.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 3 only
c) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Article 8 of the Rome
Statute deals with war crimes. Article 8(2)(b)(ii) says war crimes include
“intentionally directing attacks against civilian objects, that is, objects
which are not military objectives”, and 8(2)(b)(ix) mentions “intentionally
directing attacks against buildings dedicated to religion, education, art,
science or charitable purposes, historic monuments, hospitals and places where
the sick and wounded are collected, provided they are not military objectives”.
122 countries are States Parties to the Rome Statute of the
International Criminal Court. The United States is a signatory that has not
ratified the Statute. India has neither signed nor ratified the Statute.
There are several examples where
cultural property been targeted from World War II and later.
In 2001, the Taliban destroyed statutes of the Buddha that had been
carved into sandstone cliffs in Bamiyan, Afghanistan, between the 3rd and 6th
centuries AD.
Between 2014 and 2017, the Islamic State destroyed several places of
religious and cultural significance. In 2015, the IS captured and destroyed the
ancient Syrian city of Palmyra, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
5. Consider the following statements regarding Royal Bengal tiger.
It is found in India, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar.
It is least in number among all tiger subspecies in the wild.
The mangroves of the Sundarbans shared between Bangladesh and India are
the only mangrove forests where tigers are found.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Bengal tiger is found primarily in India with smaller populations
in Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar. It is the most numerous of all
tiger subspecies with more than 2,500 left in the wild. The creation of India’s
tiger reserves in the 1970s helped to stabilize numbers, but poaching to meet a
growing demand from Asia in recent years has once again put the Bengal tiger at
risk. The mangroves of the Sundarbans—shared between Bangladesh and India—are
the only mangrove forests where tigers are found. The Sundarbans are
increasingly threatened by sea level rise as a result of climate change.
1. Consider the following statements regarding the recently notified
Wetland Conservation Rules.
Wetland Conservation Rules prohibit setting up or expansion of
industries, and disposal of construction and demolition waste within the
wetlands.
Each state and Union Territory will have to set up an authority that
will define strategies for conservation and wise use of wetlands within their
jurisdiction.
The wetlands are land areas covered by water, either
temporarily\seasonally or permanently.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Ministry of Environment has notified the new Wetland Conservation
Rules that prohibit setting up or expansion of industries, and disposal of
construction and demolition waste within the wetlands. The ministry has also
directed that each state and Union Territory will have to set up an authority
that will define strategies for conservation and wise use of wetlands within
their jurisdiction.
“The authority shall prepare a list of all wetlands of the State or UT
within three months from the date of publication of these rules, develop a
comprehensive list of activities to be regulated and permitted within the
notified wetlands and their zone of influence.
It also directed the authority, to be headed by the state or UT’s
environment minister, to undertake measures for enhancing awareness among
stakeholders and local communities on values and functions of wetland.
The authority will also include one expert each in the fields of
wetland ecology, hydrology, fisheries, landscape planning and socioeconomics to
be nominated by the state government.
The wetlands are land areas covered by water, either
temporarily\seasonally or permanently. Marsh, fen and peatland come under this
category. The wetlands play a key role in hydrological cycle and flood control,
water supply and providing food, fibre and raw materials.
The Centre had in September 2019, identified 130 wetlands for priority
restoration in the next five years and asked states to submit their respective
integrated management plan. The highest number of such identified wetlands are
in Uttar Pradesh (16) followed by Madhya Pradesh (13), Jammu & Kashmir
(12), Gujarat (8), Karnataka (7) and West Bengal (6).
The country’s space agency Isro had in 2011 come out with a national
wetlands atlas on the basis of satellite image, mapping over two lakh wetlands
covering around 4.63% of the total geographic area of India.
India’s prominent wetlands include Chilika lake areas (Odisha), Wular
lake (J&K), Renuka (Himachal Pradesh), Sambhar lake (Rajasthan), Deepor
Beel (Assam), East Kolkata wetlands (West Bengal), Nal Sarovar (Gujarat),
Harika (Punjab), Rudra Sagar (Tripura) and Bhoj wetland (Madhya Pradesh) among
others.
2. Consider the following statements regarding Dengue.
Hot weather and intermittent rainfall favour the sustenance of Aedes
aegypti — the vector transmitting the dengue virus.
Dengue is mostly an asymptomatic infection, and only a very few develop
severe disease.
WHO highly recommends usage of complementary medicines like Nilavembu
kudineer(a Siddha medicine) and papaya leaf extract for treating Dengue.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
Solution: d)
Dengue is essentially a tropical disease that occurs in the countries
around the Equator; hot weather and intermittent rainfall favour the sustenance
of Aedes aegypti — the vector transmitting the dengue virus —and Aedes
albopictus, a minor contributor. Aedes eggs can remain dormant for more than a
year and will hatch once they come in contact with water. Urbanisation, poor
town planning, and improper sanitation are the major risk factors for the
multiplication of such mosquitoes. Aedes mosquitoes cannot fly beyond a hundred
metres. Hence, keeping the ambience clean can help prevent their breeding.
Further, these mosquitoes bite during the daytime, so keeping the windows shut
in the day hours is also useful.
Dengue is mostly an asymptomatic infection, and only a very few develop
severe disease. Those very young or very old and those who have a chronic
ailment are at a greater risk of developing severe disease. But the worldwide
case fatality rate is as low as 0.3%.
Despite the adequate and well-formed guidelines for the management of
dengue cases by the WHO and the Indian government, the usage of complementary
medicines like Nilavembu kudineer (a Siddha medicine) and papaya leaf extract
are rampant among the people. Nilavembu sooranam, which reportedly contains
about nine different substances, has been widely promoted for use to treat
dengue fever despite the safety of and complex interactions among its different
constituents not having been tested.
There are case reports where Andrographis paniculata, an active
constituent of Nilavembu sooranam, showed anti-fertility effects in animal
models, causing abortion. Even meta-analysis of various studies has shown that
there is no credible evidence for the use of papaya extract in dengue fever.
3. Consider the following statements regarding National
Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP).
The Union Government unveiled a ₹102 lakh crore national infrastructure
pipeline that will be implemented in 5 years as part of Government’s spending
push in the infrastructure sector.
The central government and state governments would have an equal share
of 50% each in the NIP.
During the fiscals 2020 to 2025, sectors such as Energy, Roads, Urban,
and Railways amount to around 70% of the projected capital expenditure in
infrastructure in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2
Solution: b)
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has unveiled a ₹102 lakh crore national infrastructure
pipeline, in accordance with the Narendra Modi government’s vision to make
India a $5 trillion economy by 2024-25.
To achieve this objective, a
Task Force was constituted to draw up the National Infrastructure Pipeline
(NIP) for each of the years from FY 2019-20 to FY 2024-25.
The central government and state governments would have an equal share
of 39% each in the NIP. The private sector, on the other hand, would have 22%
share which the government expects to increase to 30% by 2025.
Each Ministry/ Department would be responsible for the monitoring of
projects so as to ensure their timely and within-cost implementation.
During the fiscals 2020 to 2025, sectors such as Energy (24%), Roads
(19%), Urban (16%), and Railways (13%) amount to around 70% of the projected
capital expenditure in infrastructure in India.
4. Consider the following statements.
The right to protest, to publicly question and force the government to
answer, is a fundamental political right of the people that flows directly from
a democratic reading of Article 19.
Access to the internet is a fundamental right under Article 19.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
5. Consider the following statements regarding Interactive voice
response (IVR) system.
Interactive voice response (IVR) is a technology that allows a computer
to interact with humans by accepting a combination of voice telephone input and
touch-tone keypad selection.
IVR systems can be used for mobile purchases, banking payments and
services, retail orders, utilities, travel information and weather conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Interactive Voice Response (IVR) is an automated telephony system that
interacts with callers, gathers information and routes calls to the appropriate
recipients. An IVR system (IVRS) accepts a combination of voice telephone input
and touch-tone keypad selection and provides the appropriate responses in the form
of voice, fax, callback, email and other contact methods.
IVR systems can be used for mobile purchases, banking payments and
services, retail orders, utilities, travel information and weather conditions.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched a Complaint Management
System (CMS) — an online portal to facilitate bank customer grievance redressal
processes. CMS will be accessible on desktops as well as on mobile devices. The
RBI also plans to introduce a dedicated Interactive Voice Response (IVR) System
for tracking the status of complaints.
1. Consider the following statements regarding Antarctic Treaty.
Antarctic Treaty regulate international relations with respect to
Antarctica.
For the purposes of the treaty system, Antarctica is defined as all of
the land and ice shelves south of 60°S latitude.
The treaty establishes freedom of scientific investigation, and bans
military activity on the continent.
Antarctica is earth’s only continent without a native human population.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
The Antarctic Treaty and related agreements, collectively known as the
Antarctic Treaty System (ATS), regulate international relations with respect to
Antarctica, Earth’s only continent without a native human population. For the
purposes of the treaty system, Antarctica is defined as all of the land and ice
shelves south of 60°S latitude. The treaty entered into force in 1961.
The treaty sets aside Antarctica as a scientific preserve, establishes
freedom of scientific investigation, and bans military activity on the
continent. The treaty was the first arms control agreement established during
the Cold War. Since September 2004, the Antarctic Treaty Secretariat
headquarters has been located in Buenos Aires, Argentina.
2. Nature Risk Rising Report was recently released by
a) World Economic Forum
b) United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP)
c) World Bank
d) Intergovernmental Panel on
Climate Change (IPCC)
Solution: a)
Releasing the Nature Risk Rising Report ahead of its 50th Annual
Meeting, the World Economic Forum said about 25 per cent of our assessed plant
and animal species are threatened by human actions, with a million species
facing extinction, many within decades.
Source
3. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian economy.
GDP covers all productive activity for producing goods and services,
without duplication.
The System of National Accounting (SNA) is designed to measure
production, consumption, and accumulation of income and wealth for assessing
the performance of the economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
GDP covers all productive activity for producing goods and services,
without duplication. In effect it adds apples and oranges, tractors and
sickles, trade, transport, storage and communication, real estate, banking and
government services through the mechanism of value.
The System of National Accounting (SNA) is designed to measure
production, consumption, and accumulation of income and wealth for assessing
the performance of the economy. GDP data influence markets, signalling
investment sentiments, flow of funds and balance of payments.
4. Naf River, sometimes seen in news is bordered between
a) China and Myanmar
b) India and Myanmar
c) Myanmar and Bangladesh
d) China and Bhutan
Solution: c)
Naf River is an international river marking the border of southeastern
Bangladesh and western Myanmar.
Thousands of Rohingya Muslims had sought refuge across the Naf River in
the Chittagong Division of Bangladesh.
5. Consider the following statements regarding Primary Health
Centres (PHCs) in India.
Primary Health Centre (PHCs) also referred to as public health centres,
are state-owned rural health care facilities.
PHCs focus only on regular medical treatments and not on Infant
immunization and Pregnancy related care which is dealt by District hospitals.
Bhore Committee had recommended for the development of Primary Health
Centres in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Primary Health Centre (PHCs), sometimes referred to as public health
centres, are state-owned rural health care facilities in India. They are
essentially single-physician clinics usually with facilities for minor
surgeries, too. They are part of the government-funded public health system in
India and are the most basic units of this system.
Apart from the regular medical treatments, PHCs in India have some
special focuses.
Infant immunization programs
Anti-epidemic programs
Birth control programs
Pregnancy and related care
Emergencies
Several States remain laggards when it comes to creating a primary
health care system with well-equipped PHCs as the unit. This was first
recommended in 1946 by the Bhore Committee.
1. Consider the following statements regarding Forest Advisory
Committee.
Forest Advisory Committee can adjudicate the requests by the industry
to destroy forest land for commercial ends.
Recently Forest Advisory Committee approved a scheme that could allow
forests to be traded as a commodity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The Forest Advisory Committee, an apex body tasked with adjudicating
requests by the industry to raze forest land for commercial ends, has approved
a scheme that could allow “forests” to be traded as a commodity. If
implemented, it allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its
responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies.
2. The term Pauk-Phaw is exclusively devoted to denote the
relationship between
a) China and Pakistan
b) China and Myanmar
c) Japan and South Korea
d) Japan and Russia
Solution: b)
The term Pauk-Phaw is exclusively devoted to denote the special nature
of the Sino-Myanmar relationship.
3. Consider the following statements.
India has successfully achieved the complete phase out of
Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, which is a chemical used by foam
manufacturing enterprises.
Before the phase out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, India was
one of the major producers of HCFC-141b.
The complete phase out of HCFC 141 b from the country is as agreed
under Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
India has successfully achieved the complete phase out of
Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, which is a chemical used by foam
manufacturing enterprises and one of the most potent ozone depleting chemical
after Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). (HCFC)-141 b is used mainly as a blowing
agent in the production of rigid polyurethane (PU) foams.
HCFC-141b is not produced in the country and all the domestic
requirements are met through imports. With this notification, prohibiting the
import of HCFC-141 b, the country has completely phased out the important ozone
depleting chemical. Simultaneously, the use of HCFC-141 b by foam manufacturing
industry has also been closed as on 1st January, 2020 under the Ozone Depleting
Substances (Regulation and Control) Amendment Rules, 2014.
Nearly, 50 % of the consumption of ozone depleting chemicals in the
country was attributable to HCFC-141 b in the foam sector.
The complete phase out of HCFC 141 b from the country in foam sector is
among the first at this scale in Article 5 parties (developing countries) under
the Montreal Protocol.
4. Consider the following statements regarding BRICS grouping.
Not all BRICS members are the members of G20.
Since 2009, the BRICS nations have met annually at formal summits.
New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development bank operated
by the BRICS countries with each country contributing equally to its equity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 2 only
Solution: b)
BRICS is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging
national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
The BRICS members are known for their significant influence on regional
affairs; all are members of G20. Since 2009, the BRICS nations have met
annually at formal summits.
The main achievement of BRICS is the New Development Bank, with each
country contributing equally to its equity.
European Space Agency’s PUNCH mission will image regions beyond the
Sun’s outer corona.
The mission will track the solar wind and also the coronal mass
ejections – which are huge masses of plasma that get thrown out of the Sun’s
atmosphere.
India’s planned satellite Aditya-L1 will also study the Sun’s corona.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
NASA’s PUNCH mission will image the Sun. This is a landmark mission
that will image regions beyond the Sun’s outer corona. PUNCH, which stands for
“Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere,” is focused on understanding
the transition of particles from the Sun’s outer corona to the solar wind that
fills interplanetary space.
India is planning to send up its own satellite Aditya-L1, a mission to
study the Sun’s corona.
