1. Green crackers contain
less amount of chemicals such as lithium, arsenic, barium and lead compared to
regular crackers.
2. Green crackers release
water vapour and don’t allow the dust particles to rise.
3. In India, green crackers
are researched and developed by scientists at DRDO.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution:
b)
In October
2018, the Supreme Court allowed bursting of low-emission crackers relaxing the
‘complete ban’ issued in 2017. Such ‘green’ crackers were researched and
developed by scientists at CSIR-NEERI as per the court’s directions.
‘Green’
crackers have a small shell size compared to traditional crackers. They are
produced using less harmful raw materials and have additives which reduce
emissions by suppressing dust.
Green
crackers don’t contain banned chemicals such as lithium, arsenic, barium and
lead. They are called Safe Water Releaser (SWAS), Safe Thermite Cracker (STAR)
and Safe Minimal Aluminium (SAFAL) crackers.
Green
crackers release water vapour and don’t allow the dust particles to rise. They
are designed to have 30% less particulate matter pollution.
2. Consider the following
statements regarding International Treaty of Plant Genetic Resources for Food
and Agriculture (ITPGRFA).
1. It is a comprehensive
international agreement for ensuring food security through the conservation,
exchange and sustainable use of the world’s Plant Genetic Resources for Food
and Agriculture.
2. It aims to ensure that
recipients share benefits they derive from the use of the plant genetic
materials with the countries where they have been originated.
3. It is not mandatory to
ratify the treaty for accessing Plant Genetic materials.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The International Treaty on Plant Genetic
Resources for Food and Agriculture was adopted by the Thirty-First Session of
the Conference of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations
on 3 November 2001.
It is also
known as Seed Treaty as it is a comprehensive international agreement for
ensuring food security through the conservation, exchange and sustainable use
of the world’s Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (PGRFA).
The Treaty aims at:
recognizing
the enormous contribution of farmers to the diversity of crops that feed the
world;
establishing
a global system to provide farmers, plant breeders and scientists with access
to plant genetic materials;
ensuring
that recipients share benefits they derive from the use of these genetic
materials with the countries where they have been originated.
Main Provisions:
Multilateral
system: The treaty puts 64 of our most important crops – crops that together
account for 80 percent of the food we derive from plants – into an easily
accessible global pool of genetic resources that is freely available to potential
users in the Treaty’s ratifying nations for some uses.
Access and
benefit sharing: The Treaty facilitates access to the genetic materials of the
64 crops in the Multilateral System for research, breeding and training for
food and agriculture. Those who access the materials must be from the Treaty’s
ratifying nations and they must agree to use the materials totally for
research, breeding and training for food and agriculture. The Treaty prevents
the recipients of genetic resources from claiming intellectual property rights
over those resources in the form in which they received them.
3. Consider the following
statements regarding Eurasian economic union.
1. It is an international
organization for regional economic integration.
2. It has international
legal personality and is established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic
Union.
3. Russia, Belarus, Armenia
and Uzbekistan are the Member-States of the Eurasian Economic Union.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
Solution:
d)
Eurasian
economic union:
It is an
international organization for regional economic integration.
It has
international legal personality and is established by the Treaty on the
Eurasian Economic Union.
Composition:
Includes Russia, Belarus, Armenia, Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan.
It has
free movement of goods, services and labour.
It has its
own bureaucratic structure.
4. Consider the following
statements about Special 301 Report.
1. It is prepared annually
by the World Bank.
2. The Report includes a list
of “Priority Foreign Countries”, “Priority Watch List” and a “Watch List”
countries which are judged on the basis of intellectual property laws.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
b)
The
Special 301 Report is prepared annually by the Office of the United States
Trade Representative (USTR) that identifies trade barriers to United States
companies and products due to the intellectual property laws, such as
copyright, patents and trademarks, in other countries.
The annual
Special 301 Report includes a list of “Priority Foreign Countries”, that are
judged to have inadequate intellectual property laws; these countries may be
subject to sanctions. In addition, the report contains a “Priority Watch List”
and a “Watch List”, containing countries whose intellectual property regimes
are deemed of concern.
5. Consider the following
statements regarding Marawah Island, recently seen in news
1. Marawah Island is
located off the coast of Abu Dhabi.
2. The oldest known natural
pearl in the world has been discovered on Marawah Island.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution:
c)
The oldest
known natural pearl in the world has been discovered by Abu Dhabi
archaeologists working at a Neolithic site on Marawah Island, just off the
coast of Abu Dhabi.
Dubbed the
‘Abu Dhabi Pearl’, it was found in layers that have been radiocarbon dated to
5,800-5,600 BCE, during the Neolithic period.
6. Consider
the following statements
regarding
US-India Defence Technology and Trade Initiative.
1.
It
is a mechanism to make sure that senior leaders from both countries are engaged
consistently to strengthen the opportunities in the field of defence.
2.
It
aims to strengthen India’s defence industrial base, exploring new areas of
technological development and expanding U.S.-India business ties.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution:
c)
In August 2018, the US granted to India the
designation of Strategic Trade Authority Tier 1 or STA-1, “providing India with
greater supply-chain efficiency by allowing US companies to export a greater
range of dual-use and high-technology items to India under streamlined
processes.” This authorisation is the equivalent of NATO allying with Japan,
South Korea and Australia.
DTTI came about to expedite the scope of
cooperation on defence technology that become narrow due to the presence of
differing bureaucratic processes and legal requirements.
While DTTI is not a treaty or law, it is a
flexible mechanism to make sure that senior leaders from both countries are
engaged consistently to strengthen the opportunities in the field of defence.
Its central aims include strengthening India’s defence industrial base,
exploring new areas of technological development and expanding U.S.-India
business ties.
7. Consider
the following statements regarding Eco-sensitive zones.
1.
Eco-Sensitive
Zones (ESZs) are areas notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife
Sanctuaries.
2.
They
act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving
lesser protection.
3.
Eco-Sensitive
Zones are defined and mentioned in Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Which of
the above statements is/ are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
c)
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) or Ecologically
Fragile Areas (EFAs) are areas notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forests
and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India around Protected Areas,
National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. The purpose of declaring ESZs is to
create some kind of “shock absorbers” to the protected areas by regulating and
managing the activities around such areas. They also act as a transition zone
from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
ESZ are
regulated by central government through Min. of Environment, Forests and
Climate change (MoEFCC). Ministry came out with new guidelines for regulation
of such areas in 2011.
The
Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-sensitive
Zones”.
8. Consider
the following statements regarding Kartarpur Sahib pilgrim corridor.
1. It is a visa-free border
crossing and secure corridor, connecting the Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan
to the border with India.
2. The gurdwara in
Kartarpur stands on the bank of the river Ravi.
3. The place holds
significance because the first guru of Sikhism, Guru Nanak was born in
Kartarpur.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution:
a)
The
Kartarpur Corridor is a visa-free border crossing and secure corridor,
connecting the Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan to the border with India.
7. The gurdwara in Kartarpur stands on the
bank of the Ravi, about 120 km northeast of Lahore.
8. It was here that Guru Nanak assembled a
Sikh community and lived for 18 years until his death in 1539.
9. Consider
the following statements about International Maritime Organization (IMO).
1. It is independent to United Nations.
2. It is the global standard-setting
authority for the safety, security and environmental performance of
international shipping.
3. India was re-elected as Member to the Council
of the International Maritime Organization for two years (2018-19).
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
c)
The
International Maritime Organization – is the United Nations specialized agency
with responsibility for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention
of marine pollution by ships.
The IMO’s
primary purpose is to develop and maintain a comprehensive regulatory framework
for shipping and its remit today includes safety, environmental concerns, legal
matters, technical co-operation, maritime security and the efficiency of
shipping.
India was re-elected as Member of
International Maritime Council for two years (2018-19)
10. Consider
the following statements regarding Tech Sagar.
1. TechSagar is a
consolidated and comprehensive repository of India’s cyber tech capabilities.
2. The National Cyber
Security Coordinator’s office in partnership with Data Security Council (DSCI)
of India launched TechSagar.
3. Data Security Council
(DSCI) is a not-for-profit, industry body on data protection in India.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
d)
The National Cyber Security Coordinator’s
office in partnership with Data Security Council (DSCI) of India launched
TechSagar – a platform to discover India’s technological capability through a
portal. The portal will list business and research entities from the IT
industry, startups, academia, and individual researchers.
As India aspires to become a trillion-dollar
digital economy, the repository will facilitate new opportunities for
businesses and academia to collaborate, connect and innovate in future.
TechSagar is a consolidated and comprehensive
repository of India’s cyber tech capabilities which provides actionable
insights about capabilities of the Indian Industry, academia and research
across 25 technology areas like internet of things (IoT), Artificial
Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning (ML), blockchain, cloud &
virtualisation, robotics & automation, ar/vr, wireless & networking,
and more.
DSCI is a not-for-profit, industry body on
data protection in India, setup by NASSCOM.
11. Consider
the following statements regarding Cape Town Agreement, sometimes seen in news.
1. Cape Town Agreement was
adopted by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) to help
combat illegal, unregulated and unreported (IUU) fishing.
2. It seeks to introduce
mandatory safety measures for fishing vessels.
3. India was the first
country to sign and ratify the agreement.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3
Solution:
b)
India, ranked third in fisheries, is yet to
ratify a global regulatory regime adopted by the International Maritime
Organization (IMO) for safety of fishing vessels.
Cape Town Agreement seeks to introduce
mandatory safety measures for fishing vessels of 24 metres and over in length.
The Cape Town Agreement was adopted by the IMO
in 2012 to help combat illegal, unregulated and unreported (IUU) fishing.
The treaty
will enter into force 12 months after at least 22 nations, with an aggregate
3,600 fishing vessels of 24 metres and over in length operating on the high
seas, have expressed their consent to be bound by it.
The Cape
Town Agreement includes mandatory international requirements for stability and
associated seaworthiness, machinery and electrical installations, life-saving
appliances, communications equipment and fire protection, as well as fishing
vessel construction. It is aimed at facilitating better control of fishing
vessel safety by flag, port and coastal states.
12. Consider
the following statements regarding Cape Town Agreement, sometimes seen in news.
1. Cape Town Agreement was
adopted by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) to help
combat illegal, unregulated and unreported (IUU) fishing.
2. It seeks to introduce
mandatory safety measures for fishing vessels.
3. India was the first
country to sign and ratify the agreement.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3
Solution:
b)
13. Consider
the following statements regarding Cape Town Agreement, sometimes seen in news.
1. Cape Town Agreement was
adopted by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) to help
combat illegal, unregulated and unreported (IUU) fishing.
2. It seeks to introduce
mandatory safety measures for fishing vessels.
3. India was the first
country to sign and ratify the agreement.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3
Solution:
b)
14. Consider
the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission.
1. The chief objective of
the Mission is to revive traditional water sources in all rural areas by 2024.
2. It also aims to create
local infrastructure for rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge and
management of household waste water for reuse in agriculture.
3. The Jal Jeevan Mission
will converge with other Central and State Government Schemes to achieve its
objectives of sustainable water supply management.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
c)
Jal Jeevan Mission:
The
Mission was announced in August 2019.
The chief
objective of the Mission is to provide piped water supply (Har Ghar Jal) to all
rural and urban households by 2024.
It also
aims to create local infrastructure for rainwater harvesting, groundwater
recharge and management of household waste water for reuse in agriculture.
The Jal
Jeevan Mission is set to be based on various water conservation efforts like
point recharge, desilting of minor irrigation tanks, use of greywater for
agriculture and source sustainability.
The Jal
Jeevan Mission will converge with other Central and State Government Schemes to
achieve its objectives of sustainable water supply management across the
country.
15. Consider the following statements
regarding District Mineral Foundation (DMF).
1. District MineralFoundation (DMF) was instituted under the Mines and Minerals (Development and
Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Act 2015.
2. District Mineral
Foundation (DMF) is a trust set up as a non-profit body, in all districts to
work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining
related operations.
3. It is funded through the
contributions from miners.
4. The various state DMF
rules and the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Khestra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) guidelines
stipulate Education, Health and Livelihood and skill development as “high
priority” issues for DMFs.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2,
3, 4
Solution:
c)
DMFs were instituted
under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Act
2015.
District
Mineral Foundation (DMF) is a trust set up as a non-profit body, in those
districts affected by the mining works, to work for the interest and benefit of
persons and areas affected by mining related operations. It is funded through
the contributions from miners.
Jurisdiction:
Its manner of operation comes under the jurisdiction of the relevant State
Government.
The various state DMF rules and the Pradhan
Mantri Khanij Khestra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) guidelines stipulate some “high
priority” issues for DMFs, including:
11. Drinking water.
12. Health
13. Women and child welfare.
14. Education
15. Livelihood and skill development.
16. Welfare of aged and disabled.
17. Sanitation
Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana
(PMKKKY):
The
programme is meant to provide for the welfare of areas and people affected by
mining related operations, using the funds generated by District Mineral
Foundations (DMFs).
Source
16. Consider the following statements about
Black Holes
1. Most
Black holes are formed from the remnants of a large star that dies in a
supernova explosion.
2. Black
holes were predicted by Einstein’s theory of general relativity.
3. Scientists
can directly observe black holes with telescopes that detect x-rays, light, or
other forms of electromagnetic radiation.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2 only
d) 2, 3
Solution:
a)
The idea of an object in space so massive and
dense that light could not escape it has been around for centuries. Most
famously, black holes were predicted by Einstein’s theory of general
relativity, which showed that when a massive star dies, it leaves behind a
small, dense remnant core.
Scientists can’t directly observe black holes
with telescopes that detect x-rays, light, or other forms of electromagnetic
radiation. We can, however, infer the presence of black holes and study them by
detecting their effect on other matter nearby. If a black hole passes through a
cloud of interstellar matter, for example, it will draw matter inward in a
process known as accretion. A similar process can occur if a normal star passes
close to a black hole. In this case, the black hole can tear the star apart as
it pulls it toward itself. As the attracted matter accelerates and heats up, it
emits x-rays that radiate into space. Recent discoveries offer some tantalizing
evidence that black holes have a dramatic influence on the neighborhoods around
them – emitting powerful gamma ray bursts, devouring nearby stars, and spurring
the growth of new stars in some areas while stalling it in others.
Most black holes form from the remnants of a
large star that dies in a supernova explosion.
17. Consider
the following statements regarding Solar PV cells.
1. Pradhan Mantri Kisan
Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme mandate the use of
domestically manufactured solar PV cells.
2. A solar PV cell shall be
considered to be domestically manufactured only if the same has been
manufactured in India using un-diffused silicon wafers.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution:
c)
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has
recently issued a clarification stating that solar PV cells manufactured using
diffused silicon wafers or blue wafers shall not be considered domestically
manufactured solar PV cells, and hence, would not qualify for MNRE’s
schemes/programmes. This decision can be expected to significantly reduce the
country’s dependence on foreign imports and establish India as a prominent
manufacturing hub of solar products. The move can also help in reducing initial
costs associated with solar PV systems and improve its adoption in the country.
MNRE’s
flagship programmes such as the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan
Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme mandate the use of domestically manufactured solar
PV cells. Despite the mandate, it was noticed that some manufacturers were
using imported semi-processed PV cells or blue wafers as raw materials to
manufacture solar PV cells.
MNRE
stated that “A solar PV cell shall be considered to be domestically
manufactured only if the same has been manufactured in India using un-diffused
silicon wafers (generally called ‘black wafers’).”
18. Consider
the following statements regarding Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection
Program (GSLEP).
1. The GSLEP is a world
first joint initiative that aims to conserve the snow leopard within the
broader context of also conserving valuable high mountain ecosystems.
2. Snow leopard range
countries signed Bishkek Declaration to work towards the goal of the GSLEP.
3. Every year India hosts
the GSLEP meet under the aegis of Ministry of environment, forest and climate
change.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
c)
The GSLEP is a world first joint initiative
that aims to conserve the snow leopard
within the broader context of also conserving valuable high mountain
ecosystems.
GSLEP
unites all 12 range country governments, nongovernmental and inter-governmental
organisations, local communities, and the private sector around this aim.
In 2013
the 12 snow leopard range countries and partners signed the Bishkek Declaration
(in the Kyrgyz Republic capital city) and agreed to the goal of the GSLEP for
the 7 years through 2020. The snow leopard range countries agree, with support
from stakeholder and interested organisations, to work together to identify and
secure at least 20 snow leopard landscapes across the cat’s range by 2020 or,
in short – “Secure 20 by 2020.”
The 4th steering committee meeting of the
Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) was held recently
in New Delhi, where environment minister Prakash Javadekar launched the
national protocol for snow leopard population assessment in India.
This is
for the first time that India hosted the GSLEP meet, under the aegis of
ministry of environment, forest and climate change (MoEF).
19. Consider
the following statements regarding Snow Leopard.
1. Snow leopard is listed
as Critically endangered under the IUCN Red List.
2. In India, the snow
leopard habitat is spread over the northern Himalayan mountains of Jammu and
Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim.
3. The Union Government had
launched SECURE Himalaya project for the protection of Snow Leopard.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
c)
Snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable under the
IUCN Red List. In India, the snow leopard habitat is spread over the northern
Himalayan mountains of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim.
The Union Government had launched SECURE
Himalaya, a six-year project to ensure conservation of locally and globally
significant biodiversity, land and forest resources in high Himalayan ecosystem
spread over four states viz. Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand
and Sikkim.
It was
launched by Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
in association with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Protection
of snow leopard and other endangered species and their habitats is one of the
key components of the project which will also focus on securing livelihoods of
the people in the region and enhancing enforcement to reduce wildlife crime.
20. Consider
the following statements regarding President’s Rule in India.
1. President’s Rule is
imposed when the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance
with the provisions of the Constitution.
2. The imposition of the
President’s rule is approved by the president and does not require the sanction
of the Parliament.
3. A proclamation of
President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent
proclamation without parliamentary approval.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2
Solution:
c)
Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives
President of India the power to suspend state government and impose President’s
rule of any state in the country if “if he is satisfied that a situation has
arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance
with the provisions of the Constitution”.
Upon the
imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers. The Vidhan
Sabha is either dissolved or prorogued.
The state
will fall under the direct control of the Union government, and the Governor
will continue to be head the proceedings, representing the President of India –
who is the Head of the State.
The
imposition of the President’s rule requires the sanction of both the houses of
Parliament.
If
approved, it can go on for a period of six months. However, the imposition
cannot be extended for more than three years, and needs to be brought before
the two houses every six months for approval.
A
proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any time by
a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary
approval.
21. Consider
the following statements about National Mineral Policy 2019.
1.
Encourages
the private sector to take up exploration.
2.
It
proposes to grant status of industry to mining activity.
3.
The
policy introduced the concept of Inter-Generational Equity that deals with the
well-being not only of the present generation but also of the generations to
come.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
d)
The National Mineral Policy 2019 includes
provisions which will give boost to mining sector such as
introduction
of Right of First Refusal for RP/PL holders,
encouraging
the private sector to take up exploration,
auctioning
in virgin areas for composite RP cum PL cum ML on revenue share basis,
encouragement
of merger and acquisition of mining entities and
transfer
of mining leases and creation of dedicated mineral corridors to boost private
sector mining areas.
The 2019
Policy proposes to grant status of industry to mining activity to boost
financing of mining for private sector and for acquisitions of mineral assets
in other countries by private sector
It also
mentions that Long-term import-export policy for mineral will help private
sector in better planning and stability in business
The Policy
also mentions rationalize reserved areas given to PSUs which have not been used
and to put these areas to auction, which will give more opportunity to private
sector for participation
The Policy
also mentions to make efforts to harmonize taxes, levies & royalty with
world benchmarks to help private sector
NMP 2019 aims to attract private investment
through incentives while the efforts would be made to maintain a database of mineral
resources and tenements under mining tenement systems. The new policy focusses on use coastal
waterways and inland shipping for evacuation and transportation of minerals and
encourages dedicated mineral corridors to facilitate the transportation of
minerals. The utilization of the
district mineral fund for equitable development of project affected persons and
areas. NMP 2019 proposes a long-term export-import policy for the mineral
sector to provide stability and as an incentive for investing in large scale
commercial mining activity.
The 2019
Policy also introduces the concept of Inter-Generational Equity that deals with
the well-being not only of the present generation but also of the generations
to come and also proposes to constitute an inter-ministerial body to
institutionalize the mechanism for ensuring sustainable development in mining.
22. Consider
the following statements regarding Contract farming.
1.
Contract
farming refers to an agreement between farmers and marketing firms for the
production and supply of agricultural products under forward agreements,
frequently at predetermined prices.
2.
In
India, contract farming is regulated under the Agricultural Produce Market
Committees (Development and Regulation) (APMC) Act of 2003.
3.
Karnataka
has become the first State in the country to enact a law on contract farming.
Which of
the above statements is/ are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
a)
Contract farming refers to an agreement
between farmers and marketing firms for the production and supply of
agricultural products under forward agreements, frequently at predetermined
prices.
At present, contract farming is regulated
under the Agricultural Produce Market Committees (Development and Regulation)
(APMC) Act of 2003. This is the law that legalises contract farming.
Tamil Nadu has become the first State in the
country to enact a law on contract farming with President Ram Nath Kovind
giving assent to the Agricultural Produce and Livestock Contract Farming and
Services (Promotion and Facilitation) Act.
23.
Consider the following statements.
1. The absentee voter
refers to a vote cast by someone who is unable to go to the polling station.
2. The power to include any
category of persons like disabled and people over 80 years of age in the
absentee voter list lies with the Election Commission of India.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution:
a)
The
disabled and people over 80 years of age can now cast their vote through postal
ballot. At present, voting through postal ballot is available to armed forces
and those assigned poll duties.
On the
recommendation of the Election Commission, the Ministry of Law and Justice has
amended the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, allowing senior citizens and
person with disabilities in the absentee voter list.
The
absentee voter refers to a vote cast by someone who is unable to go to the
polling station.
24. Consider
the following statements regarding Pardoning powers of President.
1. The power of pardon
shall be exercised by the President on the advice of Council of Ministers.
2. The President can
exercise these powers in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an
offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of
the Union extends.
3. The constitution has
provided a small window for judicial review of the pardon powers of President
for the purpose of ruling out any arbitrariness.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
b)
The
President can exercise these powers:
In all
cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court martial;
In all
cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law
relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends;
In all
cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
This power of pardon shall be exercised by the
President on the advice of Council of Ministers.
The
constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the legality of
decisions of President or governors exercising mercy jurisdiction.
But the SC
in Epuru Sudhakar case has given a small window for judicial review of the
pardon powers of President and governors for the purpose of ruling out any
arbitrariness.
25.
Consider the following statements about United Nations Economic and Social
Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP).
1. It is the regional
development arm of the United Nations for the Asia-Pacific region, established
in 2000.
2. It is the largest United
Nations body serving the Asia-Pacific region.
3. India is the founder
member of UNESCAP.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 2 only
Solution:
b)
The United
Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is the
regional development arm of the United Nations for the Asia-Pacific region.
ESCAP is
the most comprehensive of the United Nations five regional commissions, and the
largest United Nations body serving the Asia-Pacific region.
Established
in 1947 with its headquarters in Bangkok, Thailand, ESCAP works to overcome
some of the region’s greatest challenges by providing results-oriented
projects, technical assistance and capacity building to member States.
India,
founder member of UNESCAP, has been closely involved and played a prominent
role in its deliberations from its initial years.
26.
Consider the following statements regarding National Pension System (NPS).
1. National Pension System
(NPS) is a pension cum investment scheme launched by Government of India to
provide old age security to Citizens of India.
2. The Scheme is regulated
by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
3. Non-Resident Indians
(NRIs) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCIs) are not eligible to invest in NPS.
Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution:
c)
National
Pension System (NPS) is a pension cum investment scheme launched by Government
of India to provide old age security to Citizens of India. It brings an
attractive long-term saving avenue to effectively plan your retirement through
safe and regulated market-based return. The Scheme is regulated by Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). National Pension System Trust
(NPST) established by PFRDA is the registered owner of all assets under NPS.
The
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has added one more
category of investors who can invest in the National Pension System. PFRDA has
stated that now Overseas Citizen of India (OCIs) can enrol to invest in NPS
tier-1 accounts.
27.
Consider the following statements regarding Overseas Indian Citizen.
1. A foreign national, who
was eligible to become citizen of India on 26.01.1950 is eligible for
registration as Overseas Citizen of India (OCI).
2. If the applicant had
ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh, he/she will not be eligible for
OCI.
Which of
the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:
d)
According
to Ministry of External Affairs website, an OCI is “A foreign national, who was
eligible to become citizen of India on 26.01.1950 or was a citizen of India on
or at any time after 26.01.1950 or belonged to a territory that became part of
India after 15.08.1947 is eligible for registration as Overseas Citizen of
India (OCI). Minor children of such person are also eligible for OCI. However,
if the applicant had ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh, he/she will
not be eligible for OCI.”
28.
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the Narmada
River?
1. Narmada rises from the
Amarkantak Plateau region in Madhya Pradesh.
2. The river flows in a
rift valley, flowing west between the Satpura and Vindhya mountain ranges.
3. The river’s basin
extends over the states of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat only.
Options:
a. 1 and 2
only
b. 2 and 3
only
c. 1 and 3
only
d. 1, 2
and 3
Answer:
a
Explanation:
The Narmada,
the largest west flowing river of the Peninsula, rises near Amarkantak range of
mountains in Madhya Pradesh. It is the fifth-largest river in the country and
the largest one in Gujarat. It traverses through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
and Gujarat and meets the Gulf of Cambay.
29.
Which of the following species is not classified as critically endangered in
India?
a.
Rameshwaram parachute spider
b.
Namdapha flying squirrel
c. Pygmy
hog
d.
Lion-tailed macaque
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Some
examples of critically endangered species in India:
Rameshwaram
parachute spider, Namdapha flying squirrel, Pygmy hog, Great Indian bustard,
Bengal florican, Jerdon’s courser, Ganges shark, Pygmy Hog Sucking Louse,
Northern river terrapin, Gharial, Chinese pangolin, Kondana soft-furred rat,
Malabar large-spotted civet, Kashmir Stag.
Some
examples of endangered species in India:
Red panda,
Nilgiri tahr, Sangai, Asiatic lion, Bengal tiger and Lion-tailed macaque.
Note the
list is not exhaustive.
30.
Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?
a.
Madhubani Paintings: Bihar
b.
Chanderi Sarees: Uttar Pradesh
c.
Bidriware: Maharashtra
d.
Gobindabhog Rice: West Bengal
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Bidriware
is associated with the state of Karnataka.
Bidriware
is a metal handicraft from Bidar. It was developed in the 14th century C.E.
during the rule of the Bahamani Sultans. The term ‘Bidriware’ originates from
the township of Bidar, which is still the chief centre for the manufacture of
the unique metalware. Due to its striking inlay artwork, Bidriware is an
important export handicraft of India and is prized as a symbol of wealth. The
metal used is a blackened alloy of zinc and copper inlaid with thin sheets of
pure silver. This native art form has obtained Geographical Indications (GI)
tag.
31.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In India, more than 50%
of the land is under cultivation.
2. The area under forest
cover in India is about 30%.
Options:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1
and 2
d. Neither
1 nor 2
Answer:
a
Explanation:
In India,
about 51.09% of the land is under cultivation, 21.81% under forest and 3.92%
under pasture.
32.
Which of the following are incorrectly matched?
a. Red
Panda: Nokrek Biosphere Reserve
b. Dugong:
Sunderbans
c. Giant Squirrel:
Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve
d. Snow
Leopard: Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Dugong is
found mainly in the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve.
33.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The maximum gap between
two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months.
2. Prorogation means the
termination of a session of the House by an order made by the President under
article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
The
President can also prorogue the House while in session.
Options:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
only
d. 1, 2
and 3
Answer:
d
Explanation:
The
maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months.
In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year.
Prorogation
means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by the
President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Prorogation terminates
both the sitting and session of the House. Usually, within a few days after the
House is adjourned sine die by the presiding officer, the President issues a
notification for the prorogation of the session. However, the President can
also prorogue the House while in session.
34.
With reference to the cultivation of crops in India, consider the following
statements:
1. India is the largest
producer of pulses in the world.
2. India is the largest
importer of pulses in the world.
3. Gram dal is the most
grown pulse in India.
Which of
the given statement/s is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 2 and 3
only
c. 1, 2
and 3
d. 1 and 3
only
Answer:
c
Explanation:
India is
the largest producer (25% of global production), consumer (27% of world
consumption) and importer (14%) of pulses in the world. Pulses account for
around 20 per cent of the area under foodgrains and contribute around 7-10 per
cent of the total foodgrain production in the country. Though pulses are grown
in both Kharif and Rabi seasons, Rabi pulses contribute more than 60 per cent
of the total production.
Gram is
the most dominant pulse having a share of around 40 per cent in the total
production followed by Tur/Arhar at 15 to 20 per cent and Urad/Black Matpe and
Moong at around 8-10 per cent each. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan,
Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka are the top five pulses producing States.
35.
Jayakwadi dam is located on the river -
a.
Godavari
b.
Tungabhadra
c.
Mahanadi
d.
Brahmaputra
Answer:
a
36.
Which of the following is/are included in the list of UNESCO World Heritage
Sites:
1. Rani ki Vav
2. Modhera Sun Temple
3. Champaner-Pavagadh
Archaeological Park
Choose the
correct option:
a. 1 and 2
only
b. 1 only
c. 1 and 3
only
d. 2 only
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Champaner-Pavagadh
Archaeological Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in Panchmahal
district in Gujarat. Located on the banks of the historical and mythical river
Saraswati in Patan, Rani ni Vav is the latest addition to the list from
Gujarat. Built in the 11th Century, the step-well was originally a memorial to
the king, and slowly took up the name of the queen.
37.
Which of the following is/are the applications of Cartosat-2?
1. Detailed mapping
2. Geographical Information
System (GIS) applications
3. Land Information System
(LIS) applications
Choose the
correct option:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
only
c. 1 and 3
only
d. 1, 2
and 3
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Cartosat-2
is an Earth Observation satellite launched on PSLV-C40/Cartosat-2 Series
Satellite Mission. The imagery sent by Cartosat-2 satellite has the following
applications. It is useful for cartographic applications (detailed mapping),
urban and rural applications, coastal land use and regulation, utility
management like road network monitoring, water distribution, creation of land
use maps, change detection to bring out geographical and manmade features and
various other Land Information System (LIS) as well as Geographical Information
System (GIS) applications.
38.
Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana
Yojana:
1. It is a centrally
sponsored scheme being executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
2. Under the programme,
eligible pregnant women are entitled for cash assistance irrespective of the
age of mother and number of children.
Choose the
correct option:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1
and 2
d. Neither
1 nor 2
Answer:
a
Explanation:
Pradhan
Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana is a centrally sponsored scheme being executed by
the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Target
beneficiaries for the scheme are:
All
Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers, excluding those who are in regular
employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or PSUs or
those who are in receipt of similar benefits under any law for the time being
in force.
All
eligible Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers who have their pregnancy on or
after 01.01.2017 for the first child only.
39.
Consider the following statements about Olive Ridley Turtles:
1. Hope Island of Coringa
Wildlife Sanctuary of Andhra Pradesh is one of the major breeding grounds for
these turtles.
2. Olive Ridley turtles
feed on algae and seaweed only.
3. They are classified as
Critically Endangered as per the IUCN Red List.
Which of
the given statement/s is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
only
d. 2 and 3
only
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Olive
Ridley sea turtles come in large numbers for nesting to Odisha coasts. The mass
nesting draws worldwide attention to the conservation of Olive Ridley in
Odisha. The synchronised nesting in mass numbers is called Arribadas. They are
mostly carnivorous and feed on jellyfish, snails, crabs, and shrimp. They occasionally
consume algae and seaweed. The major breeding ground for these turtles is
Rushikulya (Odisha), Dharma (Odisha), Devi estuary (Odisha), Astaranga Coast
(Odisha), Gahirmatha beach (Odisha) and Hope Island of Coringa Wildlife
Sanctuary (Andhra Pradesh). They are classified as Vulnerable — IUCN Red List.
40.
Interferometric Synthetic Aperture Radar (InSAR) is a radar technique used in
1. Geodesy
2. Remote sensing
3. Mapping ground
deformation
Which of
the given statement/s is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
only
c. 1, 2
and 3 only
d. 3 only
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Interferometric
synthetic aperture radar, abbreviated InSAR is a radar technique used in
geodesy and remote sensing. This geodetic method uses two or more synthetic
aperture radar (SAR) images to generate maps of surface deformation or digital
elevation, using differences in the phase of the waves returning to the
satellite. The technique is also used for mapping ground deformation using
radar images of the Earth’s surface that are collected from orbiting
satellites. Unlike visible or infrared light, radar waves penetrate most
weather clouds and are equally effective in darkness. InSAR helps in generating
maps of how a place would look after an earthquake, or a detonation.
41.
“Ghamr” and “Baqura” in news are territories in conflict between which two
countries?
a.
UAE-Saudi Arabia
b. Israel
– Jordan
c.
Turkey-Syria
d.
Pakistan-Afghanistan
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Israel -
Jordan Border
42.
Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Indo-Tibetan Border
Police (ITBP) -China
2. Border Security Force –
Pakistan
3. Sashastra Seema Bal –
Bangladesh
Choose the
correct option:
a. 1 and 2
only
b. 2 and 3
only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2
and 3
Answer:
a
Explanation:
The
following are the Central Armed Police
Forces of India, their deployment along India’s border is as follows:
Border
Security Force (BSF)- Pakistan and Bangladesh
Indo-Tibetan
Border Police (ITBP)-China
Sashastra
Seema Bal (SSB)- Nepal and Bhutan
43.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Hunter Commission
appointed to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh shootings did not have any Indian
members.
2. The Hunter Commission
did not impose any penal or disciplinary action against General Dyer.
Which of
the given statement/s is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1
and 2
d. Neither
1 nor 2
Answer:
a
Explanation:
The
government formed a committee of inquiry to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh
shootings. On October 14, 1919, the Government of India announced the formation
of the Disorders Inquiry Committee. The committee was commonly known as Hunter
Commission after the name of its chairman, Lord William Hunter. It also had
Indian members. However, the Hunter Committee did not impose any penal or
disciplinary action against General Dyer.
Q44.
Fair and Remunerative Prices (FRP) for Sugarcane is announced by?
a.
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
b. Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
c.
Department of Agriculture and Co-operation and Farmers Welfare
d. None of
the above
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Fair and
remunerative price (FRP) is the minimum price at which rate sugarcane is to be
purchased by sugar mills from farmers. On the recommendation of the Commission
for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), FRP is announced by the Cabinet Committee
on Economic Affairs (CCEA), which is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Q45.
Which of the following is/are not correctly matched?
1. Tso Moriri – Manipur
2. Deepor Beel – Assam
3. Rudra Sagar Lake –
Tripura
Choose the correct option:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
only
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3
only
Answer:
a
Explanation:
Tso
Moriri, Deepor Beel and Rudra Sagar Lake are all Ramsar sites in India. Tso
Moriri is is a lake in the Changthang Plateau in Ladakh. Loktak lake is the
Ramsar Site in the state of Manipur.
46. Teesta
River flows through the states of:
1. Sikkim
2. West Bengal
3. Meghalaya
Choose the correct
option:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3
only
c. 1 and 2
only
d. 1, 2
and 3
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Teesta is
a 414km long river flowing through the Indian states of West Bengal, Sikkim
before going to the Bay of Bengal through Bangladesh.
47.
Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOC) recently launched a special winter-grade
diesel for Ladakh. Consider the following statements
1. It remains unfrozen up
to minus 33 degree Celsius.
2. It meets BIS
specification of BS-VI grade diesel.
Select the
correct statements
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
Solution
(c)
Indian Oil
Corporation has developed winter-grade diesel for Ladakh to address the problem
of loss of fluidity in fuel during extreme winter conditions.
The winter
grade diesel produced by Panipat Refinery for the first time has a pour point
of – 33oC and does not lose its fluidity function even in the extreme winter
weather of the region unlike the normal grade of diesel which becomes
exceedingly difficult to utilize.
This
winter grade diesel also meets BIS specification of BS-VI grade diesel.
48.
‘India International Cherry Blossom Festival’ is celebrated in which of the
following States?
a) Uttarakhand
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Meghalaya
d) Manipur
Solution
(c)
The India
International Cherry Blossom Festival-2019 is organised by the Government of
Meghalaya in association with Institute of Bioresources and Sustainable
Development (IBSD). They had planted 5000 cherry trees between Umiam Lake, the
Wards’ Lake, New Shillong and all the way to Mawphlang. The target is to plant
20000 more trees.
49.
‘SAANS’ campaign is associated with
a) Breast Feeding
b) Pneumonia
c) Rotavirus
d) Menstrual Hygiene
Solution
(b)
SAANS,
short for ‘Social Awareness and Action to Neutralise Pneumonia Successfully’
was launched by the Union Health Ministry to mobilise people to protect
children from pneumonia, and train health personnel and other stakeholders to
provide prioritised treatment to control the disease.
50.
Recently, two varieties of tea, Green Tea and White Tea received GI Tags. It
belongs to which of the following States?
a) West Bengal
b) Assam
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Tripura
Solution
(a)
Darjeeling
green and white teas, whose price varies from Rs 3,000 -Rs 10,000 per kg, have
received Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the domestic market, which will
put to rest any doubt about their authenticity and quality.
51.
‘Sisseri River Bridge’ which was opened recently, is located in
a) Ladakh
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Jammu & Kashmir
d) Assam
Solution
(b)
Defence
Minister inaugurated the Sisseri River Bridge located at lower Dibang Valley in
Arunachal Pradesh. The 200m long bridge provides connectivity between Dibang
Valley and Siang.
52. ‘Kimberley
Process Certification Scheme (KPCS)’ is associated with
a) Diamonds
b) Terbium
c) Yttrium
d) Uranium
Solution
(a)
The
Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) is the process established in
2003 to prevent “conflict diamonds” from entering the mainstream rough diamond
market by United Nations General Assembly Resolution 55/56 following
recommendations in the Fowler Report.
53.‘Za’ir-Al-Bahr’
is a naval exercise between India and
a) Oman
b) Qatar
c) Saudi Arabia
d) United Arab Emirates
Solution
(b)
A
three-day naval exercise, Za’ir-Al-Bahr (Roar of the Sea) is being conducted
between November 17 and November 21, 2019 between the Indian and Qatar Naval
Forces.
54.The
objectives of ‘NISHTHA’ mega-training programme are:
1. To equip all the
elementary stage teachers on learning outcomes, school-based assessment,
learner –centered pedagogy, new initiatives in education and addressing diverse
needs of children through multiple pedagogies.
2. To orient state
functionaries and school principals on learning outcomes, national achievement
survey, learner- centered pedagogy and new initiatives in school education so
that they are able to monitor schools and extend support to schools for the
implementation of new initiatives.
Select the
correct code:
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
Solution
(c)
NISHTHA –
National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement is an
initiative to build capacities of teachers and school principals at the
elementary stage.
The initiative
is an Integrated Teacher Training Programme of the Department of School
Education and Literacy, Ministry of HRD as part of its National Mission to
improve learning outcomes at the Elementary level under the Centrally Sponsored
Scheme of Samagra Shiksha during 2019-20.
The
programme aims to build the capacities of around 42 lakh participants covering
all teachers and Heads of Schools at the elementary level in all Government
schools, faculty members of State Councils of Educational Research and Training
(SCERTs), District Institutes of Education and Training (DIETs) as well as
Block Resource Coordinators and Cluster Resource Coordinators in all States and
UTs.
The
objectives of Nishtha mega-training programme are:
To equip
all the elementary stage teachers on learning outcomes, school based
assessment, learner –centred pedagogy, new initiatives in education and
addressing diverse needs of children through multiple pedagogies, etc.
To monitor
and provide extensive support to the teachers using multiple modes up to the
classroom level, in view of improving learning outcomes of the students.
To orient
state functionaries and school principlas on learning outcomes, national
achievement survey, learner- centred pedagogy and new initiatives in school
education so that they are able to monitor schools and extend support to
schools for the implementation of new initiatives.
55. Consider
the following statements with respect to the ‘Sun’
1. The Core of the Sun is
hotter than the Corona.
2. The Corona is hotter
than the Photosphere.
Select the
correct statements
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
Solution
(c)
Core >
Corona > Photosphere.
The
temperature at the core of the Sun is nearly 15 million degrees Celsius, while
that at its surface layer, known as the photosphere, is merely 5,700 degrees C.
The natural thing to expect is that still further outwards, in its atmosphere,
known as the corona, the temperatures would be comparable to that at the
surface (photosphere). However, the temperature of the corona is much higher.
It starts increasing outside the photosphere, reaching a value of about one
million degrees or more in the corona.
Read More
–
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/long-standing-conundrum-on-the-suns-atmosphere-solved/article29993252.ece
56.
‘Gravastar’ was in news recently. What is it associated with?
a) Black Holes
b) Jupiter’s Moon
c) South Pole of the Moon
d) Lithium Ion Batteries for Aviation
Solution
(a)
A
gravastar is an object hypothesized in astrophysics as an alternative to the
black hole theory by Pawel O. Mazur and Emil Mottola. It has usual black hole
metric outside of the horizon, but de Sitter metric inside. On the horizon
there is a thin shell of matter. The term “gravastar” is a portmanteau of the
words “gravitational vacuum star”.
57.Consider
the following statements with respect to ‘Solar eclipse’
1. A solar eclipse occurs
when the moon passes in a direct line between the Earth and the sun.
2. Solar Eclipse takes
place twice a year in the month of May and November.
Select the
correct statements
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
Solution
(a)
A solar
eclipse happens when the Moon is directly in line between Earth and the Sun.
The Moon’s shadow sweeps across Earth’s surface; at those places.
Total
solar eclipses are rare events. Although they occur somewhere on Earth every 18
months on average, it is estimated that they recur at any given place only once
every 360 to 410 years, on average.
58.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Dam Rehabilitation and
Improvement Project (DRIP)’
1. It is a State Sector
Scheme with a Central component
2. It is funded by the
World Bank
Select the
correct statements
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
Solution
(c)
Both the
statements are correct.
59.
‘Hynniewtrep National Liberation Council’ which was in news is associated with
a) Meghalaya
b) Tripura
c) Nagaland
d) Manipur
Solution
(a)
The
central government has banned ‘Hynniewtrep National Liberation Council’ (HNLC),
a Meghalaya-based insurgent group, for its increased activities of violence and
other insurgent acts. Centre also notified that HNLC’s activities are
detrimental to the sovereignty and integrity of India.
60.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Farmers’ Clubs (FCs)’
1. The major objective is
to promote “Development through credit, technology transfer, awareness and
capacity building” of the farmers.
2. It is promoted by
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
Select the
correct statements
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
Solution
(c)
Farmers’
Clubs (FCs) promoted by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD) are grass root level informal fora organized by the rural branches of
banks, Non-Government Organisations (NGOs), Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs), etc.
The programme is being implemented for the mutual benefit of the banks and the
farmers. The major objective is to promote “Development through credit,
technology transfer, awareness and capacity building” of the farmers. The clubs
are beneficial for banks as well as line departments of the State Government
for convergence of the programmes / schemes sponsored / implemented by them.
61. Consider
the following statements with respect to “Project 3-S: Smart Safety
Surveillance”
1. It is a project focused
on optimizing pharmacovigilance (PV) systems in low-middle and middle-income
countries (LMICs) across the globe.
2. The World Health
Organization (WHO) along with the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation is behind
this project.
Select the
correct statements
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
Solution
(c)
Project
3-S: Smart Safety Surveillance
It is a
project focused on optimizing pharmacovigilance (PV) systems in low-middle and
middle-income countries (LMICs) across the globe by:
Developing
an advocacy and communications strategy for the next 3 years.
Identifying,
securing and promoting representation at prominent global health events and
platforms where 3-S advocacy activities can be launched.
Generating
supportive marketing materials, including publications
WHO has
been prodding countries to adopt the 3S programme, with the support of the Bill
and Melinda Gates Foundation, to strengthen pharmacovigilance systems in
developing nations.
The
central government will expand the reach of the Smart Safety Surveillance, or
3S, programme, to optimize post-marketing surveillance of priority drugs and
vaccines, and ensure the vaccines distributed under the universal immunization
programme are safe.
The 3S
project was recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO), considering the
limited safety data on vaccines introduced in India.
As part of
the 3S project, India is evaluating the recently-introduced rotavirus vaccines.
It is also trying to strengthen the collaboration among key stakeholders, such
as ministry of health and Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO),
to ensure high levels of vigilance.
62. ‘World
Energy Outlook’ is published by
a) World Economic Forum
b) International Energy Agency
c) International Renewable Energy Agency
d) International Energy Forum
Solution
(b)
63. The
Union Cabinet has given its approval for introduction of the Industrial
Relations Code, 2019 in the Parliament. The code on Industrial Relations has
been prepared after amalgamating, simplifying and rationalizing the provisions
of which of the following Acts?
1. The Trade Unions Act,
1926
2. Minimum Wages Act 1948
3. The Industrial Disputes
Act, 1947
Select the
correct code:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Solution
(c)
The draft
code on Industrial Relations has been prepared after amalgamating, simplifying
and rationalizing the relevant provisions of following three Central Labour
Acts:
The Trade
Unions Act, 1926
The
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
The
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
64. The
CT-TTX, Counter Terrorism Table Top Exercise was in news recently. It is
associated with
a) SCO
b) QUAD
c) BRICS
d) ASEAN
Solution
(b)
65.
‘Global Terrorism Index’ is published by
a) Institute for Economics and Peace
b) United Nations Security Council
c) Institute of Peace and Conflict Studies
d) International Criminal Police Organization
Solution
(a)
The Global
Terrorism Index (GTI) is a report published annually by the Institute for
Economics and Peace (IEP), and was developed by IT entrepreneur and IEP’s
founder Steve Killelea.
66.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘’Sowa Rigpa’ medicine system
1. It was introduced in
India by the Arabs and Persians sometime around the eleventh century.
2. The foundation of the
medicine system was laid by Hippocrates.
Select the
correct statements
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
Solution
(d)
“Sowa-Rigpa”
commonly known as Amchi system of medicine is one of the oldest, Living and
well documented medical tradition of the world. It has been popularly practice
in Tibet, Magnolia, Bhutan, some parts of China, Nepal, Himalayan regions of
India and few parts of former Soviet Union etc. There are various schools of
thought about the origin of this medical tradition, some scholars believe that
it is originated from India; some says China and others consider it to be
originated from Tibet itself. The majority of theory and practice of Sowa-Rigpa
is similar to “Ayurveda”. The first Ayurvedic influence came to Tibet during
3rd century AD but it became popular only after 7th centuries with the approach
of Buddhism to Tibet. There after this trend of exportation of Indian medical
literature, along with Buddhism and other Indian art and sciences were
continued till early 19th century.
67.
‘Vientiane Action Programme’ is associated with
a) APEC
b) ASEAN
c) BIMSTEC
d) RCEP
Solution
(b)
Vientiane
Action Programme calls for ASEAN to build a peaceful, secure and prosperous
ASEAN.
68. Signal
Fish which was in news recently was discovered in?
a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
b. Gulf of Khambhat
c. Kerala coast
d. Gulf of Mannar
Answer
: c
India's
first Signal Fish was found in Kerala deep waters.
The
discovered species is the world’s largest Signal Fish.
The
species named Pteropsaron indicum was collected by trawlers at a depth of 70
metres during a marine biodiversity survey.
The signal
fishes are spotted in the coral reefs. So it indicates the presence of patchy
corals off the Kerala coast.
69. Which of the following are the goals of the
Curiosity Rover?
1. Determine whether life
ever arose on Mars.
2. Characterize the climate
of Mars.
3. Characterize the geology
of Mars.
4. Prepare for human
exploration.
Select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer
: d
According
to the new study, Oxygen behaves in a mysterious way on Mars.
NASA’s
Curiosity rover’s has added a new mystery for scientists studying Mars, with
samples from the rover showing a seasonal change around Oxygen levels near the
surface of the Gale Crater on the red planet.
NASA found
that Oxygen levels throughout spring and summer rose by as much as 30%.
According
to NASA, Curiosity has 4 main science goals in support of the agency's Mars
exploration program:
Determine
whether life ever arose on Mars.
Characterize
the climate of Mars.
Characterize
the geology of Mars.
Prepare
for human exploration.
70. Consider
the following statements with respect to Places of Worship Act, 1991
1. The aim of the Act was
to freeze the status of any place of worship as it existed on August 15, 1947.
2. The Act does not apply
to the place of worship commonly referred to as Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid in
Ayodhya.
3. This law will have
overriding effect over any other law in force.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None
Answer
: c
The Act
declares that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to
be the same as it was on August 15, 1947.
It says no
person shall convert any place of worship of any religious denomination into
one of a different denomination or section.
It was
intended to pre-empt new claims by any group about the past status of any place
of worship and attempts to reclaim the structures or the land on which they
stood.
It
declares that all suits, appeals or any other proceedings regarding converting
the character of a place of worship, which are pending before any court or authority
on August 15, 1947, will abate as soon as the law comes into force.
No further
legal proceedings can be instituted.
However,
there is an exception to the bar on instituting fresh proceedings with regard
to suits that related to conversion of status that happened after August 15,
1947.
This saves
legal proceedings, suits and appeals regarding chance of status that took place
after the cut-off date.
These
provisions will not apply to
ancient
and historical monuments and archaeological sites and remains that are covered
by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958
a suit
that has been finally settled or disposed of and
any
dispute that has been settled by the parties or conversion of any place that
took place by acquiescence before the Act commenced.
The Act
does not apply to the place of worship commonly referred to as Ram
Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid in Ayodhya.
This law
will have overriding effect over any other law in force, it said.
71. Consider
the following statements with respect to Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh
1. It is a repository of
diverse crops across 128 agro-climatic zones for better nutritional outcomes.
2. It aims at reducing
malnutrition through a multi-sectoral results-based framework, including
agriculture, among women and children across the country.
3. Ministry of Women and
Child Development has collaborated with Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation for
this project.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer
: d
Union
Government has recently announced Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh which is a
repository of diverse crops across 128 agro-climatic zones for better
nutritional outcomes.
The Kosh
aims at reducing malnutrition through a multi-sectoral results-based framework,
including agriculture, among women and children across the country.
Ministry
of Women and Child Development has collaborated with Bill and Melinda Gates
Foundation for this project.
The
Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh seeks to promote healthy dietary practices and
tackle under-nutrition in a sustainable manner.
The
initiative will be built on an essential understanding of social, behavioural
and cultural practices that promote and reinforce healthy dietary behaviours
both at the individual and community level.
72. Consider
the following statements with respect to Health Systems for a New India:
Building Blocks Report which was released recently:
1. It was released recently
by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. The report has out
rightly suggested that Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) should be
extended to whole of India.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: d
Government
think tank Niti Aayog recently released a report ‘Health Systems for a New
India: Building Blocks—Potential Pathways to Reforms’.
The report
identified five focus areas of future health system - to deliver on unfinished
public health agenda, change health financing away from out of pocket so spend
into large insurers, integrate service delivery vertically and horizontally,
empower citizens to become better buyers of health, harness the power of
digital health.
Even as
the report has not out rightly suggested that Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
(PM-JAY), government’s cashless health insurance scheme covering 10 crore poor
families for Rs five lakh annually, should be extended to whole of India, it
discretely mentioned that PM-JAY should be considered with an eye on its
potential to influence the overall healthcare transformation in India, beyond
its current explicit mandate.
73.CASE
Instrument sometimes seen in the news recently was contributed by _________ for
_________ Mission?
a. NASA – ESA
b. ESA – NASA
c. NASA – ROSCOSMOS
d. JAXA – ROSCOSMOS
Answer
: a
NASA has
announced that it will contribute an instrument to a European space mission
that will explore the atmospheres of planets or exo-planets orbiting stars
beyond our Sun for the first time.
The
instrument will aid the European Space Agency’s (ESA’s) ARIEL or Atmospheric
Remote-sensing Infrared Exoplanet Large-survey mission.
NASA’s instrument
has been called the CASE or Contribution to ARIEL Spectroscopy of Exoplanets
and it will be managed by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory in Pasadena,
California.
The ARIEL
spacecraft with CASE on board is expected to launch in 2028.
74. Consider
the following statements
1. He is also called as
Punjab Kesari.
2. His important works
include ‘The Arya Samaj’, ‘Young India’, and ‘England’s Debt to India’.
3. He died at Lahore in
1928 after he was attacked by police during a protest rally against the Simon Commission.
Identify
the personality who correctly matches with the above description:
a. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b. Bipin Chandra Pal
c. Lala Lajpat Rai
d. Abul Kalam Azad
Answer
: c
Lala
Lajpat Rai, the firebrand Indian nationalist leader was affectionately called
as ‘Punjab Kesari’.
Rai is
remembered for his role during the Swadeshi movement and for his advocacy of
education.
The
patriot died at Lahore in 1928 after he was attacked by police during a protest
rally against the Simon Commission.
His important
works include: ‘The Arya Samaj’, ‘Young India’, ‘England’s Debt to India’,
‘Evolution of Japan’, ‘India’s Will to Freedom’, ‘Message of the Bhagwad Gita’,
‘Political Future of India’, ‘Problem of National Education in India’, ‘The
Depressed Glasses’, and the travelogue ‘United States of America’.
75. Consider
the following statements with respect to Diesel
1. Below the Cloud point,
Diesel is prone to waxing.
2. A special winter-grade
diesel with a low pour-point of -33 deg C, does not lose its fluidity even in
extreme winter conditions.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: c
Recently,
1st Winter-Grade Diesel outlet was inaugurated in Ladakh.
The move
will boost tourism in extreme weather conditions and help in the economic
development of the region.
Under
normal conditions the paraffin wax added to diesel improves viscosity and
lubrication.
However,
when temperatures begin to fall, this paraffin wax thickens and turns into a
cloudy mixture. This point is known as a fuel’s ‘Cloud point’.
Indian Oil
has come up with an innovative solution to this problem by introducing a
special Winter-grade diesel with a low pour-point of -33 deg Celsius, which
does not lose its fluidity function even in extreme winter conditions.
This
winter grade diesel also meets BIS specification of BS-VI grade diesel.
76)
Consider the following statements with respect to Epilepsy
1. It is a chronic
communicable disease of the brain that affects people of all ages.
2. It is seen as a major
health problem and it is considered to be a Mental health disorder.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: d
In India,
November 17th is observed every year as National Epilepsy Day to create
awareness about epilepsy.
It is a
chronic noncommunicable disease of the brain that affects people of all ages.
It is seen
as a major health problem that was earlier considered to be a ‘Mental health
disorder’, however, with advancement in diagnosis and epidemiological studies,
epilepsy is now considered a ‘Neurological disorder’.
Around 50
million people worldwide have epilepsy, making it one of the most common
neurological diseases globally.
Nearly 80%
of people with epilepsy live in low- and middle-income countries.
It is
estimated that up to 70% of people living with epilepsy could live seizure-
free if properly diagnosed and treated.
In many
parts of the world, people with epilepsy and their families suffer from stigma
and discrimination.
77)
‘Nadu-Nedu’ scheme which was in news recently was launched in
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Kerala
c. Telangana
d. Karnataka
Answer
: a
Andhra
Pradesh government has launched the ‘Nadu-Nedu’ programme.
The
programme aims to introduce English medium from classes 1 to 6 in state-run
schools.
The scheme
will be implemented in 15,715 schools in the first phase.
It will
cover all schools in three years’ time with a budget of Rs 12,000 crores.
This will transform all government schools with
the required infrastructure and upgradation of skills besides setting up of
English labs in addition to providing basic amenities like clean environs,
furniture, toilets, running water, compound wall, blackboard, renovation and
involve parent committee.
78.
Consider the following statements with respect to ASEAN Defence Ministers’
Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus)
1. ADMM-Plus is a platform
comprising ASEAN and its eight dialogue partners including India and United
States.
2. The grouping focuses its
work on maritime security, counter-terrorism, humanitarian assistance and cyber
Security.
3. India is not
participating in the 6th edition of ADMM-Plus in response to the failure in
reaching consensus for Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
Agreement.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer
: b
Consistent
with the ADMM guiding principles of open and outward looking, the 2ndADMM in
Singapore in 2007 adopted the Concept Paper to establish the ADMM-Plus.
The
ADMM-Plus is a platform for ASEAN and its eight Dialogue Partners to strengthen
security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the
region.
The
ADMM-Plus countries include ten ASEAN Member States, namely, Brunei Darussalam,
Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore,
Thailand and Viet Nam, and eight Plus countries, namely Australia, China,
India, Japan, New Zealand, ROK, Russian Federation and the United States.
The
Inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Viet Nam, on 12 October 2010.
The
Defence Ministers then agreed on five areas of practical cooperation to pursue
under this new mechanism, namely maritime security, counter-terrorism, humanitarian
assistance and disaster relief, peacekeeping operations and military medicine.
To
facilitate cooperation on these areas, Experts' Working Groups (EWGs) are
established.
In 2013
and 2016, new priority areas like humanitarian mine action and cyber security
were agreed respectively.
Union
Minister for Home Affairs recently attended the 6th ASEAN Defence Ministers’
Meeting – Plus.
79.
Consider the following statements with respect to Kimberley Process
Certification Scheme (KPCS)
1. Kimberley Process is a
joint initiative involving Government, International Diamond Industry and Civil
Society to stem the flow of Rough Diamonds.
2. The Chair of Kimberley
Process is selected annually based on election among the member countries.
3. India is one of the
founder members of Kimberley Process Certification Scheme and is the Chair of
Kimberley Process for the year 2019.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 3 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. None
Answer
: a
The
Kimberley Process is a joint initiative involving Government, International
Diamond Industry and Civil Society to stem the flow of Conflict Diamonds.
“Conflict
Diamonds” means rough diamonds used by rebel movements or their allies to
finance conflict aimed at undermining legitimate governments.
It is also
described in United Nations Security Council (UNSC) resolutions.
At
present, KPCS has 55 members representing 82 countries including EU with 28
members.
The
Kimberley Process is chaired, on a rotating basis, by participating countries.
KP
Vice-Chair is generally elected by KP Plenary each year who becomes the Chair
in the next year.
India is
the current Chair of KPCS with Russian Federation as Vice Chair for the year
2019.
Since
2003, India has been actively participating in the KPCS process and is a member
of all Working Groups of KP (except for WGAAP).
Department
of Commerce is the nodal Department and Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion
Council (GJEPC) is designated as the KPCS Importing and Exporting Authority in
India.
GJEPC is
responsible for issuing KP Certificates and is also the custodian of KP
Certificates received in the country.
80. Consider
the following statements with respect to National Mission on Cultural Mapping
(NMCM)
1. The Mission will compile
data of artists, art forms & geo location with inputs from Central
Ministries, State Governments & art/culture bodies.
2. It has been set up by
the Ministry of Culture in 2017.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: c
National
Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM) has been set up by the Ministry of Culture
in 2017.
Mission
will compile data of artists, art forms & geo location with inputs from
Central Ministries, State Governments & art/culture bodies.
Specially
designed data capture form with technical collaboration of National
E-Governance Division (NEGD)/Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MEITY) has been formulated for data collection.
81. Consider
the following statements with respect to Exercise Za’ir-Al-Bahr
1. It is a multilateral
maritime exercise held between members of Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC).
2. For the first time,
India and China is participating in this exercise as special observers.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: d
Navies of
India and Qatar have started a five-day bilateral maritime exercise
Za'ir-Al-Bahr (Roar of the Sea) at Doha that includes surface action, air
defence, maritime surveillance as well as social and sports events.
The
inaugural edition of the bilateral maritime exercise would further strengthen
the robust defence co-operation between the two countries, especially in the
fight against terrorism, maritime piracy and security.
82. Consider
the following statements with respect to Starlink satellites which was in news
recently
1. It aimed at providing
low-cost and reliable space-based Internet services to the world.
2. It was launched by the
European Space Agency (ESA)
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: a
A spray of
60 Starlink satellites fired into orbit, the first operational batch of what is
intended to eventually evolve into a constellation of nearly 12,000 satellites.
It aimed
at providing low-cost and reliable space-based Internet services to the world.
It was
launched by SpaceX, the world’s leading private company in space technology.
But astronomers
worry the SpaceX satellites are too bright and could form a
"megaconstellation" that blots out the star and interferes with the
work of telescopes.
Astronomers
and scientists have also complained about increased “light-pollution”.
83. Consider
the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
(PMMVY)
1. It is to support
lactating mothers and pregnant women by compensating them for loss of wages
during their pregnancy.
2. It is targeted only at
women delivering their first child.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: c
A recent
survey found that around Maternity scheme reaches only one-third of
beneficiaries.
The
exercise, titled Jaccha Baccha-Survey (JABS), is critical of the Pradhan Mantri
Mantru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), launched in 2017 as part of obligations under
the National Food Security Act.
Researchers
assert that extrapolation of RTI data show only 31% of eligible mothers got benefits.
Almost 63%
of pregnant women in rural India work right until the day of delivery.
And, 49%
say they felt exhausted during pregnancy, due to lack of food and rest, found
in the survey.
Pradhan
Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a vital programme to support lactating
mothers and pregnant women by compensating them for loss of wages during their
pregnancy.
The PMMVY
is targeted only at women delivering their first child.
A cash
amount of Rs. 6,000 is transferred to the bank account of the beneficiary in 3
instalments upon meeting certain conditions including early registration of
pregnancy, having at least one ante-natal check-up and registration of child
birth.
84. Which
of the following countries have a coastline on the Barents Sea?
1. Norway
2. Finland
3. Russia
4. Sweden
Choose the
correct option from the option given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer
: b
Recently,
it was found that King Crabs, which are not native to Barents sea, have slowly
conquered the region ever since their introduction.
Climate
change isalso making it easier to fish the crabs, with much of the Barents
ice-free for longer months.
The
Barents Sea is classified as a ‘Marginal sea of the Arctic Ocean’.
Climatic
changes have led to the Barents Sea having characteristics similar to the
Atlantic Ocean.
The
Barents Sea is off the northern coasts of Russia and Norway.
The
Russian and Norwegian governments were involved in a border dispute over the
position of their respective border in the sea.
85. Consider
the following statements with respect to Agni II
1. It is a
surface-to-surface medium range nuclear-capable missile.
2. It is developed by the
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: c
India on
Saturday successfully conducted the first, night trial of Agni-II from the
Abdul Kalam Island off the Odisha coast.
It is a
surface-to-surface medium range nuclear-capable missile.
Agni-II,
an intermediate range ballistic missile (IRBM), has already been inducted into
the armed forces.
Agni-II
was developed by Advanced Systems Laboratory along with other DRDO laboratories
and integrated by the Bharat Dynamics Limited.
86. Consider
the following statements with respect to World Gold Council
1. It is an association
under International Council on Mining and Metals (ICMM).
2. Its members includes
most of the world’s largest gold mining companies.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: b
Gold
remains the third-most popular investment choice, with 46% of all global retail
investors choosing gold products, next only to saving accounts (78%) and life
insurance (54%), reveals a new World Gold Council (WGC) survey of retail
consumers.
The World
Gold Council is the market development organisation for the gold industry.
It is a
nonprofit association of the world's leading gold producers and it does not
come under ICMM.
Its
purpose is to stimulate and sustain demand for gold, provide industry
leadership, and be the global authority on the gold market.
Its
members includes most of the world’s largest gold mining companies.
It is
based in the UK, with operations in India, China, Singapore and the US , and it
is the lead for the gold industry worldwide.
87. Consider
the following statements with respect to Arundhati scheme
1. Under the Scheme,
government of West Bengal provides 1 Tola Gold to Brides parents.
2. The scheme is limited
only to the weaker section of the society whose annual income is below Rs 5
lakh irrespective of caste, creed and religion.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: b
In a
unique initiative to check child marriage, Assam Govt approves Arundhati scheme
to provide 1 Tola Gold (11.66 grams) to Brides parents belonging to the
economically weaker sections of the society.
With the
aim to reduce child marriage under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act that a
girl in India can’t get married before the age of 18, and a boy can’t get
married before 21 years of age, this scheme can be availed by formal
registration of the marriage under the Special Marriage (Assam) Rules, 1954 at
the time of marriage.
This is
only limited to the weaker section of the society whose annual income is below
Rs 5 lakh irrespective of caste, creed, religion etc.
88. Consider
the following statements with respect to End-to-end encryption Technology
1. It scrambles messages in
such a way that they can be deciphered only by the sender and the intended
recipient.
2. It steers governments
away from mass surveillance and toward a more targeted, constitutional form of
intelligence gathering.
3. Law enforcement agencies
can get access to messages encrypted through this technology by presenting
technology companies with a warrant.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer
: b
End-to-end
encryption Technology
How it
Works?
It
scrambles messages in such a way that they can be deciphered only by the sender
and the intended recipient.
As the
label implies, end-to-end encryption takes place on either end of a communication.
A message
is encrypted on a sender’s device, sent to the recipient’s device in an
unreadable format, then decoded for the recipient.
There are
several ways to do this, but the most popular works like this: A program on
your device mathematically generates two cryptographic keys — a public key and
a private key.
The public
key can be shared with anyone who wants to encrypt a message to you.
The
private key, or secret key, decrypts messages sent to you and never leaves your
device.
Think of
it as a locked mailbox. Anyone with a public key can put something in your box
and lock it, but only you have the private key to unlock it.
How is it
different from other forms of encryption?
A more
common form of encryption, known as transport layer encryption, relies on a
third party, like a tech company, to encrypt messages as they move across the
web.
With this
type of encryption, law enforcement and intelligence agencies can get access to
encrypted messages by presenting technology companies with a warrant or national
security letter. The sender and recipient would not have to know about it.
End-to-end
encryption ensures that no one can eavesdrop on the contents of a message while
it is in transit.
It forces
spies or snoops to go directly to the sender or recipient to read the content
of the encrypted message.
Or they
must hack directly into the sender’s or recipient’s device, something that can
be harder to do “at scale” and makes mass surveillance much more difficult.
Privacy
activists, libertarians, security experts and human rights activists argue that
end-to-end encryption steers governments away from mass surveillance and toward
a more targeted, constitutional form of intelligence gathering.
But
intelligence and law enforcement agencies argue that end-to-end encryption
makes it much harder to track terrorists, pedophiles and human traffickers.
89. Consider
the following statements with respect to Mission Parivar Vikas
1. It focus only on
districts having the highest total fertility rates in the country.
2. The main objective is to
accelerate access to high quality family planning choices based on information,
reliable services and supplies within a rights-based framework.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: d
The
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched “Mission Parivar Vikas” in 145
high focus districts having the highest total fertility rates in the country.
These 145
districts are in the seven high focus, high TFR states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Assam that constitute
44% of the country’s population.
The main
objective of ‘Mission Parivas Vikas’ will be to accelerate access to high
quality family planning choices based on information, reliable services and
supplies within a rights-based framework.
These 145
districts have been identified based on total fertility rate and service
delivery (PPIUCD and Sterilization performance) for immediate, special and accelerated
efforts to reach the replacement level fertility goals of 2.1 by 2025.
90. ‘SAANS
Campaign’ which was in news recently is related to
a. To reduce child mortality due to pneumonia
b. An anti-tobacco awareness campaign
c. To create awareness among consumers
d. Cancer Awareness Campaign
Answer
: a
Union
Minister for Health and Family Welfare has launched SAANS Campaign which stands
for ‘Social Awareness and Action to Neutralise Pneumonia Successfully’.
The aim of
the campaign is to reduce child mortality due to pneumonia, which contributes
to around 15% deaths annually of children under the age of five.
The
campaign was launched in Gandhinagar, Gujarat at the 6th National Summit on
Good, Replicable Practices and Innovations.
91. Consider the following statements with respect
to Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
1. CDSCO under the Ministry
of chemicals and fertilizers regulates the safety, efficacy and quality of
notified medical devices.
2. Drug Controller General
of India (DCGI) an organ of CDSCO is responsible for approving and licensing of
drugs and medical devices.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: b
CDSCO is
the national regulatory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
for pharmaceuticals and medical devices in India.
It
functions under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
CDSCO has
six zonal offices, four sub-zonal offices, 13 port offices and seven
laboratories under its control.
Major
functions of CDSCO:
Regulatory
control over the import of drugs
Approval
of new drugs and clinical trials
Meetings
of Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC)
Drugs
Technical Advisory Board (DTAB),
Approval
of certain licenses as Central License Approving Authority is exercised by the
CDSCO headquarters.
Drug
Controller General of India (DCGI) is an organ of the CDSCO which is
responsible for approving and licensing of drugs and medical devices.
The DCGI
is advised by the Drug Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) and the Drug
Consultative Committee (DCC).
92. Consider
the following statements with respect to Tuberculosis (TB)
1. The National Strategic
Plan aims to end TB by 2030 in India inline with the global target.
2. NI-KSHAY functions as
the National TB Surveillance System and enables reporting of various
surveillance data both in the public and private sector to the Government of
India.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. None
Answer
: b
The
National Strategic Plan 2017-25 for ending TB by 2025 was developed in 2017.
India’s
target for complete elimination of Tuberculosis (TB) by 2025, is five years
ahead of the global target of 2030.
NI-KSHAY-(Ni=End,
Kshay=TB) is the web enabled patient management system for TB control under the
Revised National Tuberculosis Programme (RNTCP).
It is
developed and maintained by the Central TB Division (CTD), Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare, in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre
(NIC), and the World Health Organization Country office for India.
It also
functions as the National TB Surveillance System and enables reporting of
various surveillance data to the Government of India.
It is used
by health functionaries at various levels across the country both in the public
and private sector, to register cases under their care, record treatment
details, monitor treatment adherence and to transfer cases between care
providers.
93. Consider
the following statements with respect to Greenhouse gas emissions
1. Freshwater bodies do not
emit Greenhouse gasses.
2. Increasing levels of
organic molecules can enhance microbial activity and produce more greenhouse
gases.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: b
Researchers
from the University of Cambridge in the UK noted that every drop of fresh water
contains thousands of different organic molecules that have previously gone
unnoticed.
The study
found that Climate change may cause the levels of greenhouse gases emitted by
freshwater lakes to increase by between 1.5 and 2.7 times.
Freshwater
ecosystems constitute a small fraction of our planet but play a
disproportionately large and critical role in the global carbon cycle.
The amount
of carbon that inland waters emit is comparable to the net amount of carbon
absorbed by living organisms on Earth’s land surface and in its oceans.
Organic
molecules are a food source for microbes in the lake sediments, which break
them down and release carbon dioxide and methane as by-products.
Increasing
levels of organic molecules can therefore enhance microbial activity and
produce more greenhouse gases.
Since the
same microbes can make greenhouse gases from many different organic molecules,
the diversity of organic molecules was shown to be more closely linked with
levels of greenhouse gas concentrations than the diversity of the microbes.
An
elevated diversity of organic molecules may elevate greenhouse gas
concentrations in waters because there are more molecules that can be broken
down by sunlight penetrating the water.
94. In
Modern World History, Velvet Revolution refers to which of the following?
b. Modernization efforts in Iran
c. Abolition of slavery in Haiti
d. Fall of communist control over Czechoslovakia
Answer
: d
With the
so-called Velvet Revolution of 1989, Czechoslovakia freed itself of communist
control and set out to adapt its command economy to the free market.
The
government introduced a program based on policies of price liberalization, the
opening of markets to foreign trade and investment, internal convertibility of
the country’s currency, privatization of state-owned enterprises, and tax
reform.
30th
anniversary of the Velvet Revolution was held recently.
95
Apart from Farm fires which of the following is/are the main reasons for
Delhi’s poor air quality?
Wind Speed
Wind
direction
Geographic
location
Select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer
: d
Wind
direction and Speed – According to officials at the Central Pollution Control
Board, a change in wind direction and a sudden increase in wind velocity were
the main reasons behind Delhi going from severe to poor in a little over a day.
Wind
blowing northwest brings pollution from Punjab and Haryana to Delhi. Later, the
direction changed to northerly this improves the air quality.
The
average wind speed in Delhi was under 10 km/hr. Because of an active western
disturbance, the wind speed gradually rose and it was around 12 km/hr later due
to which the air quality improved.
At greater
speeds, pollutants far away can reach a spot within few hours and also be
flushed out as quickly if the wind speed holds.
Geographic
location – Delhi’s location — on the Indo-Gangetic Plain (IGP), the most
polluted belt in the country is also one of the main reasons behind Delhi’s Air
Pollution.
96
Consider the following statements with respect to Plague
1. Both Pneumonic and
Bubonic plague were caused by the Rattus Virus.
2. Septicaemic plague is a
rarer variant of plague which infects the lungs.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: d
Pneumonic
plague and Bubonic plague were types of plague caused by the Yersinia pestis
bacterium.
Bites from
infected fleas are the most common cause of bubonic plague infection, but the
pneumonic variant — where the bacterium is breathed into the lungs — is more
dangerous because it is spread through coughing.
A rarer
third variant of the diseases is Septicaemic Plague, which infects the
bloodstream.
97.
Consider the following statements with respect to Hong Kong International
Convention sometimes seen in the news recently:
1. It was adopted by UN
Environment for the Safe and Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships in 2009.
2. India has both signed
and ratified the convention.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: d
The
International Maritime Organisation (IMO) adopted the Hong Kong International
Convention for the Safe and Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships in 2009.
It aimed
at ensuring that ships being recycled after reaching the end of their operational
lives do not pose any unnecessary risks to human health, safety and to the
environment.
Cabinet
has recently approved the proposal for enactment of Recycling of Ships Bill,
2019 and accession to the Hong Kong International Convention for Safe and
Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships, 2009.
The move
will help India double its ship-recycling capacity over the next five years.
Germany
became the 13th country to accede to the convention. One of the conditions for
the convention to come into force is that at least 15 countries ratify it.
Background
India is
the leader in the global ship recycling industry, with a share of over 30% of
the market.
As per
UNCTAD report on Review of Maritime Transport, 2018, India had demolished 6323
tonnes in 2017, of known ship scrapping across the world.
The
ship-recycling industry is a labour-intensive sector, but it is susceptible to
concerns on environmental safety.
98. Consider
the following statements with respect to India – Europe 29 Business Forum
1. The Europe 29 (E29)
region refers to the 29 countries in Central, Eastern and Northern Europe.
2. It has been organized by
the Ministry of External Affairs and Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
: c
India –
Europe 29 Business Forum has been recently organized by the Ministry of
External Affairs, Government of India and Confederation of Indian Industry
(CII) in New Delhi.
The Europe
29 (E29) region refers to the 29 countries in Central, Eastern and Northern
Europe.
The India
- Europe 29 Business Forum will act as a bridge and help close the geographical
and knowledge gap between the two regions.
The Europe
29 region comprises Albania, Liechtenstein, Austria, Lithuania, Bosnia &
Herzegovina, Macedonia, Bulgaria, Malta, Croatia, Moldova, Cyprus, Montenegro,
Czech Republic, Norway, Denmark, Poland, Estonia, Romania, Finland, Serbia,
Greece, Slovak Republic, Hungary, Slovenia, Iceland, Sweden, Latvia,
Switzerland and Turkey.
99. Consider
the following statements with respect to National Action Plan for Drug Demand
Reduction (NAPDDR)
1. It is an action plan
prepared for the period from 2020-2025.
2. It aims at reduction of
adverse consequences of drug abuse through education, de-addiction and
rehabilitation of affected individuals and their families.
3. It was drafted by the
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of
the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer
: a
National
Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR) has been prepared for 2018-2023.
It has
been drafted by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
It aims at
reduction of adverse consequences of drug abuse through a multi-pronged
strategy involving education, de-addiction and rehabilitation of affected
individuals and their families.
100. IMD
World Talent Ranking, 2019 was released recently by which of the following?
a. INSEAD
b. World Economic Forum
c. International Institute for Management
Development
d. Both A and C
Answer
: c
According
to the IMD World Talent Ranking, 2019, India has slipped 6 places to 59 rank on
the global annual list of 63 countries.
It was
released by International Institute for Management Development (IMD).
The
ranking is based on the performance in three main categories -- investment and
development, appeal and readiness.
